Application of sharia law by country

With the risk of sounding a bit… (I realise I'm a bit out of my depth here) :

My question isn't related to the Syrian reffugees. My understanding is that Sharia law was put in place Before that. For muslim Immigrants.

Even so: why allow sharia law at all? (Even if it doesn't have full legislative power - or smthng. in that line). I don't see immigrants from other countries or of other faiths being given more rights. It's kind of a preferential treatment.
 
With the risk of sounding a bit… (I realise I'm a bit out of my depth here) :

My question isn't related to the Syrian reffugees. My understanding is that Sharia law was put in place Before that. For muslim Immigrants.

Even so: why allow sharia law at all? (Even if it doesn't have full legislative power - or smthng. in that line). I don't see immigrants from other countries or of other faiths being given more rights. It's kind of a preferential treatment.

It is NOT preferential treatment. It is 1. for CONCILIATION between people who agree to use it and has as much legal status as the pub landlord settling an argument between customers and 2. for financial matters such as banking and loans.

BOTH of those can apply to other groups as well but neither supersede the UK's laws. Some non-Muslims are using Sharia loan systems because they fit their personal circumstances and are legal arrangements.

No one has been given MORE rights. Those rights to arrange your affairs as you want to exist within the UK laws whether you are black Christian, white Muslim, Indian Hindu or Australian or even Redneck American.

Your difficulty is with the word "Sharia". As I said in an earlier post, it is like the word "Law". It means nothing without further definition. Murphy's Law means bread will always fall to the floor butter side down. Bye-Law applies in a particular district. "Sharia" means whatever you want it to mean. "Sharia" principles as applied in the UK are minimal. "Sharia" according to Daesh is very different.

Should we live by Old Testament Laws? They exist but we don't use them.

What Daesh want is the Muslim equivalent of the Old Testament Laws, and the Old Testament included stoning of women for adultery.

Edited for PS. The UK conciliation under 'Sharia' is just like Judge Judy. If you agree to Judge Judy hearing your case, her decision is binding. IF you agree to the UK Sharia conciliation system, the ruling is as binding as Judge Judy's. Judge Judy cannot and would not break US Law. Nor would the UK Sharia 'court'. Is Judge Judy a threat to the US constitution? Neither is that form of Sharia.
 
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I would be interested in reading posters' views on this (if anyone cares to comment). Particularly with regards to Germany.
Thanks.

So you want to debate a set of laws that are not actually being used by another country? What's the point of that?

If you read the German constitution, much like the U.S. constitution, you'll notice you can't start applying laws from other countries (or religions) in Germany.

So this is literally a pointless topic.
 
So you want to debate a set of laws that are not actually being used by another country? What's the point of that?

If you read the German constitution, much like the U.S. constitution, you'll notice you can't start applying laws from other countries (or religions) in Germany.

So this is literally a pointless topic.

A better topic would be to compare the right's professed abhorrence of Islamic Sharia Law somehow being instituted in the U.S. vs. The ongoing attempts by the religious right to codify Christian biblical law into intentionally secular U.S. state and federal law.
 
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