Green_Gem
Really Experienced
- Joined
- Jan 8, 2003
- Posts
- 291
Could someone please explain to me how marriage contracts work in the USA with regard to assets and debts accrued during a marriage. Basically we have marriage contracts here, as follows:
In Community of Property, where everything amassed during the marriage (assets and debts) is owned by both parties. In the event of a split, irrespective of whoever ran up the debts, both parties are 50% liable for payment, and assets belonging to either party before the marriage may be seized to pay for the debts.
There is a Nuptial contract with the accrual system - whereby each party retains what he/she owned prior to the marriage, and all assets that accrue during the marriage are split down the middle in the case of divorce. Personal gifts of jewellery, the gift of a house ( if it’s specifically bought, say for the wife and placed in her name) and personal inheritances are excluded from what is ‘accrued’ during the marriage. But the big thing with this marriage contract is that each person retains their own debt and is responsible for paying it. The other person cannot be held liable for payment in the event of a split.
Finally there is the Nuptial contract, without the accrual system, which literally means each person ‘owns’ what s/he brought into the marriage and what s/he earns/buys/inherits during the marriage (aside from specified gifts which the parties might exchange). Again this means each is responsible for their own debts.
I’m basically wanting to know, if there is a type of marriage contract, which could disadvantage one partner ( say the wife) with regard to being left saddled with a large amount of debt accrued by either one or both parties during the marriage. And no, I haven’t been proposed to yet, by an American…
I’m just writing a story and want to be accurate.
Thanks in advance for your help.
Green_Gem
In Community of Property, where everything amassed during the marriage (assets and debts) is owned by both parties. In the event of a split, irrespective of whoever ran up the debts, both parties are 50% liable for payment, and assets belonging to either party before the marriage may be seized to pay for the debts.
There is a Nuptial contract with the accrual system - whereby each party retains what he/she owned prior to the marriage, and all assets that accrue during the marriage are split down the middle in the case of divorce. Personal gifts of jewellery, the gift of a house ( if it’s specifically bought, say for the wife and placed in her name) and personal inheritances are excluded from what is ‘accrued’ during the marriage. But the big thing with this marriage contract is that each person retains their own debt and is responsible for paying it. The other person cannot be held liable for payment in the event of a split.
Finally there is the Nuptial contract, without the accrual system, which literally means each person ‘owns’ what s/he brought into the marriage and what s/he earns/buys/inherits during the marriage (aside from specified gifts which the parties might exchange). Again this means each is responsible for their own debts.
I’m basically wanting to know, if there is a type of marriage contract, which could disadvantage one partner ( say the wife) with regard to being left saddled with a large amount of debt accrued by either one or both parties during the marriage. And no, I haven’t been proposed to yet, by an American…
I’m just writing a story and want to be accurate.Thanks in advance for your help.
Green_Gem