the_pet
Literotica Guru
- Joined
- Dec 31, 2006
- Posts
- 1,803
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Two women having sex isn't a lesbian act?
I think my point was missed. I was talking about a "gay act" or a "gay experience" versus a gay person. Anything that two people of the same sex do together is a gay act. That's what I'm saying. So, yes, even if the wife was watching, two men having sex is still a "gay experience" - if the wife was participating I'd say it was a bisexual act. You don't have to be a gay person to have a gay experience.
The way I understand it, no it is not. I say again, unless both the women are lesbians, two women having sex together would not be considered a lesbian act.Two women having sex isn't a lesbian act?
It's all about separating the activity from the orientation. There is a lot of reason to do that if you're gay but closeted, on the down low, etc. But clearly here I'm in the minority, so I'll leave it alone.

I'll just throw in that I agree with you that the act is separated from the orientation. While I am not gay I have had a gay experience. If I said that no, it was not a gay act, it was a bi act because I am not gay, I feel like I would be displaying some serious insecurity about what I just did.
Not to say that people who do choose to refer to an act between two people of the same sex who are not gay a bi act are insecure, that's just what it would be for me.

There is no argument as to whether its a gay experience or not because the whole OP is a big steaming pile of bullshit![]()
I agree. I have both heterosexual and homosexual encounters on a semi-regular basis. If you look on the Kinsey scale, that's how such acts are described, as heterosexual and homosexual encounters.
Though I guess being fisted by Mistress while Master rammed his cock down my throat counts as a bisexual experience, since I was having both at once.![]()
And what's the deal with airline food?
Yeah. It's hard to make cardboard *look* like food.Thats not very nice, those people work hard on that food.
I agree. I have both heterosexual and homosexual encounters on a semi-regular basis. If you look on the Kinsey scale, that's how such acts are described, as heterosexual and homosexual encounters.
Though I guess being fisted by Mistress while Master rammed his cock down my throat counts as a bisexual experience, since I was having both at once.![]()
Well, yeah, but Adakgirl and I agree that we are being philosophical outside of the OP's wankery.![]()
I understand this concept better since 00Syd & BB chimed in. I suppose it doesn't really matter how you self identify as long as everyone you're involved with knows what your orientation is.
Can't say I've heard of Kinsey (pootles off to rape wiki).
I am so often amazed by what subjects will give birth to spirited debate on this forum.
I understand this concept better since 00Syd & BB chimed in. I suppose it doesn't really matter how you self identify as long as everyone you're involved with knows what your orientation is.
Can't say I've heard of Kinsey (pootles off to rape wiki).
Okay, let's bring back the OP and settle this once and for all.
Hey OP.
Did the balls touch?
If so, GAY.
If not, NOT-GAY. Just kinda, y'know, suspicious. Like, we'll be watching you for gay emergence.
(Which is fine, gay all you want. We're just settling an argument here.)
I am so often amazed by what subjects will give birth to spirited debate on this forum.
No doubt. I'm boggled that this thread is still alive.
In the absence of an actual topic, we had to make our own!
After all, PrincessGoddess went on for PAAAAGES.
Okay, let's bring back the OP and settle this once and for all.
Hey OP.
Did the balls touch?
If so, GAY.
If not, NOT-GAY. Just kinda, y'know, suspicious. Like, we'll be watching you for gay emergence.
(Which is fine, gay all you want. We're just settling an argument here.)
Ah but what if he or the father has no balls for whatever reason? If one of them is missing a single ball and they touch, does it make him bi? Do bi men come into existence when one testicle touches a pair? If so it'd explain why there are so few of them around.....![]()
You're confused? That question confused me more than I already was!Ah but what if he or the father has no balls for whatever reason? If one of them is missing a single ball and they touch, does it make him bi? Do bi men come into existence when one testicle touches a pair? If so it'd explain why there are so few of them around.....![]()
That would make him hetero-homo-bisexual, because he probably couldn't avoid each of his three testicles touching the other two at some point(s) in time. So at most any given time, one of his testicles would be homosexual (fondling/touching/molesting the other two), the other two would be hetero except when being touched/fondled/molested by the singleton, and all of them would be bisexual, because they had both hetero and homo experiences.Yeah, but what if he has THREE testicles?! Eh? EH!?
BTW, that fish pic/AV is very disturbing for some reason. Can/could/would you go back to a *you* pic for an AV?Yeah, but what if he has THREE testicles?! Eh? EH!?
That would make him hetero-homo-bisexual, because he probably couldn't avoid each of his three testicles touching the other two at some point(s) in time. So at most any given time, one of his testicles would be homosexual (fondling/touching/molesting the other two), the other two would be hetero except when being touched/fondled/molested by the singleton, and all of them would be bisexual, because they had both hetero and homo experiences.
I think.
BTW, that fish pic/AV is very disturbing for some reason. Can/could/would you go back to a *you* pic for an AV?
I'm gonna go make a crabmeat quiche.