Lauren Hynde
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- Joined
- Apr 11, 2002
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- 21,061
You would not call him a pornographer even though his work had every resemblance to the pornographic works of his contemporaries. You're saying that content has nothing to do bearing on whether a work of art is pornographic or not. You're saying that is all a matter of individual interpretation.bogusbrig said:For example. Manet's painting Olympia, which on the face of it was every bit as pornographic as the paintings of his contemporaries but he applied a context to his subject that confronted the hypocrisy of contemporary bourgeios society. He had political intent which raised his work above the mere pornographic, where the paintings of his contemporaries were painted purely to titilate. To the culturally educated the painting was aimed at, it was obvious he was shocking them to make a point which was reason for the indignant reaction to it. Context and intention set it apart and why I would not call him a pornographer. If you was a contemporary who was honest with themself about the hypocrisy in society it was not shocking but truthful. However, if you was so inclined you could just view it as pornography and who is to stop you.
I believe that what we disagree is on the definition of pornography. As Angeline noted, my definition is wide. The novels I named before are pornographic; jd4george's poem is pornographic; Manet's Olympia is pornographic. They're all pornographic and more. The fact that they have political intent is added to the fact that they are pornographic, doesn't separate them from it. On the contrary, much of their power come from being pornographic.
The difference between you and me is that I would never say this or that piece is "merely pornographic", or "just pornographic". That would be to make a moral judgement on pornography itself, it would be the equivalent of saying "nothing good can ever come from there", and it would bring us a step closer to a censor-state.